WiltOnTilt will discuss key concepts related to the mathematics of No-Limit play using Powerpoint. Begin with the basics: probability and pot odds. Then follow Wilt to more advanced arenas: implied odds and reverse implied odds, software tools and mental shortcuts for equity calculations, complex EV calculations, and an exploration of fold equity. And watch this series conclude with a discourse on the ultimate in professional poker math: hand frequencies, valuebetting, and G-bucks.
Subscribe to this Series
In episode 5, WiltOnTilt brings you up to speed on the origami of NL Hold'em - Fold Equity!
Posted 11 months ago
tags: wiltontilt fold equity mathetmatics of poker nl hold'em nlhe nl math math nlhe math mathematics of hold'em ipod friendly
Micro/Small Stakes,
81 min long
Comments for Episode 5
Klyka
Wow,
I'm impressed with how you elaborate on the formula. I didn't realize myself how much there was to be said about it.
Two points that I would like to point out:
1) The PFR% to plug into the formula is his PFR% for that particular position. So if he's playing 15/10 in general, probably we should plug a slightly tighter PFR% into the formula.
2) The 1-[1-pfr%]^n formula for P(raise) assumes that all the n players in front have the same pfr%. That is a simplification that probably shouldn't cause too much inaccuracy. One could use the formula 1 - pfr%(1)*pfr%(2)*[...]*pfr%(n) as well.
Excellent video!
Klyka
Posted 11 months ago
klb
Is it just me or is the whole "Determine Villain's Open Raising Range" formula completely and utterly pointless?
First of all it's not valuable or good for a better understanding of NLHE at all, mostly becuase it's incorrect, villain will change his openingrange depending on mood, tableconditions, precense of ratolher etc.
And the only difference between this and just taking the pfr percentage directly is that he will have somwhat lower pfr then openinraise because people will have opened in front some times and he will not 3bet all hands he would have opened with. So in that sense this formula will be more reliable, but that really doesn't mather at all since you made approximations about openraises in front and his 3-betting percentage anyway. And the formula doesnt take into account how the player responds to limps in front of him, he might tighten up or loosening up his raising percentage depending on that too.
And last but not least, you used his overall pfr, not the pfr in the UTG+1 seat. There's probably a significant difference between those, even bigger if he would have been in the cut-off or the button. This was probably just a misstake by your part but it changes the result dramaticly.
The fact that you used the overall pfr and not his pfr from utg+1, and the fact that you used approximations about the openingpercentages in front of him aswell as his 3-bet percentage makes the result vastly incorrect. You could aswell just filter PT for the amount of players at the table and look at his pfr from utg+1 and just add a percent or two and get a more reliable result. But that's not really the big problem with the formula. The big problem is that his openingrange range will not be consistent, it will change depending on many factors. Using PT stats and formulas for this is not the way to go. If you know the player and now how he plays, what mood he's in all the other variables you get a better result just using logic and put him on a range you think he's opening with and gow with that instead of that pointless formula.
This got quite long and sounded more harsh then I intended it to do. I haven't really followed your series but I like what I have seen (except said formula) and I actually think I will watch it all when I have time. You're doing a great job and I know that many pokerplayers out there really should take a look at your series for their own best. But I just reacted on that you spent the first 20 minutes on this video on such a pontless formula.
Posted 11 months ago
Klyka
This does not make the formula incorrect. It's a general formula for a general figure, just like PFR% is a general figure in the first place.
The point is not that you should use this formula to come up with R(1) and stick with that number until death. The point is to show how PRF% is skewed by a few factors, and that it can, contrary to what many people believe, not be applied directly to a situation where the player open raises. The formula shows the relations between different factors and how they come together in the figure that we usually call PFR%.
Posted 11 months ago
klb
True, I might have used the word pointless" a little recklessly,, sry about that. But the truth is that you most likely get a much better number by looking at the opponent, his tendencies, his flow atm and the table and just use common sense to come up with a range. And use that range to determine if it's better to repop of flat AK.
Everything the forumla does is take into account that the pfr% from one possition will not be the same as the openingraise% from that position because of the fact that people can open in front, it doesn't even take limpers into account (even though it will make very little difference, but approximating pfr with openingraise from utg+1 or using this formula will make very little difference to). And spending 20 minutes or 1/4 of the video on it (and missapplying it) is, imo, pointless.
Posted 11 months ago
Klyka
No, I got this one wrong. The alternative formula is a bit trickier than that. Never mind though.
Posted 11 months ago
WiltOnTilt
Exec ProducerI agree I probably shouldn't have spent as much time as i did on the formula, but i don't think it's pointless. Once I got into explaining each part, I wanted to make sure it was fully understandable (at the cost of time/redundancy). A better approach might have been saving everyone's time and just explaining once through what each value of the formula represents and letting people plug-n-play. However in terms of the usefulness of the formula, like many of the poker math topics, the formula takes some estimation and guess work to plug in values. I don't think that makes it flawed, at least in comparison to other math topics like plugging in how often you think someone folds into the fold equity calculation... it's an educated guess, just how using the preflop raise% from PT is a (more accurate, imo) educated guess that gets refined through this formula to pull out a range.
You're right though I should have better explained about using his positional PFR%, but I do encourage you to go look at your PT DB and see how much a really tight player's opening range changes by position. I'll give you a hint... most do not(at least at 6max). However for purposes of completeness (and if someone wanted to do this formula for a more laggy player), you're right I should have mentioned using that particular figure.
One reason this series is very difficult to create is because I'm trying to not only make it accessible to a wide range of people (in terms of their Math backgrounds) but I'm also trying to use somewhat real life examples so even if people don't want to sit down with a pen and paper to figure this stuff out, they might learn something about situations they encounter. At least, that's the goal. Whether I succeed or fail in those things is ultimately up to all you guys.
Thank you klb for the feedback though, I do really appreciate hearing what everyone has to say -- good or bad.
Aaron
Posted 11 months ago
Klyka
Though, this is partially because of the factors that are incorporated in the formula. Even if a player in fact does loosen up in late position, this will not be entirely visible in his PF% stats. This is because P(raise) is bigger in later position, simply because there are more players who can raise in front (the n value is larger). A larger P(raise) means that the PFR% figure will be more dependent on R(2) - the 3-betting frequency - than on R(1). Since R(2) is smaller than R(1), for all sensible players at least, this means a smaller PFR%.
This means that a looser play in the late positions may yield the same PFR% figure as a tighter play in early positions.
Posted 11 months ago
Squishee
So full of informations... my head is about to explode !
I think some homework/practique sheet could also help those who want to work on it. Do you think about putting some homework for peoples who wish to ? (I mean like 3-4 Questions with calcul to make on something like word.doc or straightforward in forum text.. and we discuss about the answer week later)
Will do my best to incorporate theses thing in my play, thanks
Posted 11 months ago
WiltOnTilt
Exec ProducerSquishee, perhaps at the end of the series i'll see what i can do... as it is making videos like this takes quite a long time... like this one took me 20+ hours from start to finish... so once I'm a bit less strapped for time I'll see what I can do to get you guys some homeworks.
WoT
Posted 11 months ago
Squishee
wow, I didnt expected to take so long time to do a video like this.. (ok this one lasted 1h20min) then I clearly understand you
Posted 11 months ago
WiltOnTilt
Exec Produceryea it takes a long time to not only draw up examples but make sure the examples you think up actually show something somewhat useful, then creating the screen shots, putting what i want to say on slides, then actually trying to say it in a way that will actually make some sense...and that doesn't even count all the time spent by Chuck (danzasmack) helping me check and recheck my math haha...
i like doing it, it just takes a looongggg time.
WoT
Posted 11 months ago
sudic
I was writing down your p calculations for fold equity and something came to me that seemed simpler to me.
In general if we are a 3:1, thet means we have 4 situations (3 negative and 1 positive).
Our 1 postive cancels out 1 of the negative, leaving of course 2 negatives out of the 3 negatives.
So we need him to fold to cancel out those negatives.
So if he folds 2 out of the 3 negatives the 3 negatives are cancelled out.
2/3 is 66%!
I'm a logical rather than mathematical person so this could be full of holes.
But it seems to be interesting at least.
If were a 4:1 dog we need him to fold 75% of the negative times.
If we're even money, 1:1 we don't need him to fold at all.
If he's a dog 1:2, we have to fold for him to win the pot.
Seems logical!
Now this doesn't take into consideration what's in the pot, only that we win it.
So if we only try to win it when we have the correct pot odds we should be ok!
Could you run some math on this idea and see what floats to the top?
May be my flash was a brain cramp.
Thanks!
sudic
Posted 11 months ago
tsclark
Really fantastic series. That "shortcut" of Grunch's that you showed at the end was extremely helpful and powerful.
Thanks so much for this series, Wilt. It's really helped my thinking at the tables.
Posted 10 months ago
Luzhin64
min 26 - isn´t our EV only 12.73?
Posted 10 months ago
WiltOnTilt
Exec Producercan you elaborate on why you think this? i just redid the math and it seems right?
WoT
Posted 10 months ago
Luzhin64
EV=(our equity) * (what we win)- (villain´s equity) * (what we loose)
EV= 55.5% * (40+15) - 44.5% * 40
EV= 0.555 * 55 - 0.445 * 40
EV= 30.525 - 17.8
EV= 12.725
or
EV= (our equity)*(total pot) - cost of our call
EV= 0.555*95 - 40
EV= 52.725 - 40
EV= 12.725
to me seems wrong to count our call in "what we win"
Anyway "Math of NLH" are best poker videos I have ever seen. Thx a lot for them.
Posted 10 months ago
SevenNineSuited
Wilt - First, great series. Really gets the critical thinking juices flowing.
My question is a bit on theoretic side. In the video you discussed how when the EV(Call) and EV(3-Bet) are close, you should go with 3-Bet because of the very real and accurate issue of either not getting to see all 5 cards or folding the best hand on the river. Makes perfect sense but from a contrarian standpoint can it be said that when evaluating EV(Call) and assuming you have > 50% equity that there exists "implied money" which will go into the pot postflop that would not exist in 3-betting since 3-betting derives most of it's overall EV from villain folding? I guess what I am trying to say is that wouldnt it be more correct to make estimates or even adjust the equity to account for the fact that some % of the time more money will go into the pot postflop when you call and that hero has a > then 50% claim to this "future money" since he is ahead of villain's range?
I am also curious to hear the response to Luzhin64's post above because I thought the same thing when I was watching the video.
Posted 8 months ago
WiltOnTilt
Exec ProducerSugarNut made me aware of an algebraic error I made in this episode around the 45 minute mark. it doesn't drastically change the result or spirit of the calculation, but it is wrong.
So here's how it is in the slide:
EV(total) = 370x – 12.85(1-x)
EV(total) = 370x – 12.85 + 12.85x
EV(total) = 382.85x – 12.85
12.85 = 382.85x
x = 12.85 / 382.85
x = 3.4%
Here's how it should be:
EV(total) = 370x – 12.85(1-x)
EV(total) = 370x – 12.85 - 12.85x
EV(total) = 357.15x - 12.85
12.85 = 357.15x
12.85 / 357.15 = x
x =~ 3.6%
The error occured on line 2 where i distributed 12.85(1-x) incorrectly. Sorry about that guys.
Also, Luzhin64 above who posted back in march, it looks like he is correct as in the video I somehow added in an additional $40 to my equation. So around the 26 minute mark the incorrect equation is:
EV = [Our Equity] * [what we win] – [Villain’s equity] * [what we lose]
EV(call) = 55.5% * (40 + 40 + 15) – 44.5% * (40)
EV(call) = 52.73 - 17.8
EV(call) = 34.93
and the correct way is is how Luzhin64 wrote it above:
EV=(our equity) * (what we win)- (villain´s equity) * (what we lose)
EV= 55.5% * (40+15) - 44.5% * 40
EV= 0.555 * 55 - 0.445 * 40
EV= 30.525 - 17.8
EV= 12.725
I'm not sure how that extra $40 crept into the equation. Must have been a typo or absentmindedness. How embarassing, sorry guys! At least the faithful DC'ers found my mistake and got it corrected for everyone else. Also at least it didn't hose up the process, just slight errors in calculation... so as long as you've learned the process you'll probably calculate correctly :-)
Thanks
WoT
Posted 7 months ago
WiltOnTilt
Exec Producer79s, yes there's merit to what you're saying. It becomes a lot more difficult to calculate though, but certainly there are situations that can arise where that would be a very real concern. One type of situation that comes to mind immediately is a spot where you are playing against an aggressive bluffy player and you've got a strong hand on the turn where many draws are present and based on how the hand went down you suspect your opponent is on a draw. Raising might be correct on paper from an EV perspective, but there's also some "hidden" value in just calling the turn and snapping off river bluffs on a blank since you can (hopefully) accurately determine which river cards helped him and which didn't, and because of our read we have reason to believe he will bluff no matter what, so we can make more correct calls and folds. The problem is that becomes pretty difficult to quantify, but on the other side of the coin is that it's also tough to quantify the benefit of our "aggressive image" by constantly choosing the more aggressive option when the EV of a passive action vs aggressive action are close.
You bring up a good and valid point though, thanks for posting.
WoT
Posted 7 months ago
SpiralSpikes
At 28 minutes you are determining villains' range for a call of our 3bet, deciding that such a range would be TT+ and AK. You go on to say that this accounts for 3.5% of all holdings. What confuses me is that in all previous episodes you have taken pains to point out that we should remove from our opponents range any possibilities that involve either the community cards or our own pockets. Here we have AsKs, so surely we should remove options involving these cards from his range: If we do that then his calling range is more like 2.5%.
This in turn means that we will collect the pot 77.7% of the time, not the 69% stated in the video. Our EV is then $40.65, not $34.89.
Of course I could be the gibbering idiot so I'm a little confused as to what I should be doing. Please enlighten.
Posted 6 months ago
WiltOnTilt
Exec Producerspiral, nice catch
Posted 6 months ago
Cueballmania
Around the 48 minute mark, you list the combinations of hands. If you hold the As, there is only 9 ways to make AKo, AQo, AJo. Also, there are only 12 combinations of KQo regardless.
Posted 4 months ago
EpErOn
i like the video, however i think the formula of PFR% is still somewhat wrong...?
isn't it missing out on the percentage villain raises when there are limpers in front of him?
i think the formula should be:
PFR% = 3betting + open raising + raising limpers!
Posted 3 months ago
Madaa
Thank you a lot WiltOnTilt. I thought I knew pretty much about maths and so on but these videos have been a good eyeopener. I believe that my view of certain opponents acts are now more clear to me. Hopefully I can turn my play from break even to winning.
Yours Madaa
Posted 3 months ago
wems
I really enjoy the series... however i hate math and suck at it... but here is a hand where I am trying to find out my FE... and I would really appreciate it if someone could check my math and make sure im doing things right...
http://www.pokerhand.org/?3384820
ev(fold)=60
ev(call)=.40 * 204 - 83 = -1.4
ev(total)= 2.3% which is how often he needs to fold... is this right???
Now I'm not certain if the number of combos he has/is calling with is correct I was more concerned with getting the whole math aspect of this correct than figuring out approximate ranges, however I do feel the ranges are fairly close... I was more focused on getting a number of combos to work with and ive already spent an hour on this problem so i might have taken a shortcut
AKo, AQo, A8s, K8s, T9s, T8s, 86s which is ~45 combos.
then his call combos i believe are:
22, 66, 88, 99, TT, JJ, QQ (im going to say he 3bets KK, AA preflop)
so thats 23 call combos
So he calls 51% of te time and folds 49% of the time... and so this is a +EV play because he is folding > 1.4% ?!?? for some reason that just doesn't seem right... the 1.4% needed for him to fold that is...
so now we plug that into our formula etc
ev(total)= 60x - 1.4(1-x)
ev(total)= 60(.49)-1.4(1-.49)
ev(total)= 60 * .49 - 1.4 * .51
ev(total)= 29.4 - 0.714
ev(total)= $28.69
So that means by shoving this turn we are making $28.69 in ev?
Please help me I am uncertain how right/wrong this is and would love some advice...
Thanks,
wems
Posted 2 months ago
quaddamage
You distributed correctly in the video.
The check works out....
0 = 370(12.85 / 382.85) + (-12.85)(1 - (12.85 / 382.85))
0 = 370 * 0.033564059030952070001305994514823 + -12.85 * 0.96643594096904792999869400548518
0 = 12.4187018414522 - 12.4187018414522
0 = 0
if your ev calculation is EV = [EV(fold)] * x + [EV(call)] * (1 - x)
Then distributing -12.85 would yield a calc that looks like this ..
EV = 370x + [(-12.85)(1 - x)]
= 370x + (-12.85 + 12.85x)
= 370x + 12.85x - 12.85
= 382.85x - 12.85
x = 12.85/382.85
x = 0.033564059030952070001305994514823
Someone correct me if I'm wrong.
I can see how SugarNut came to his conclusion somewhat.
Maybe he changed around the origincal Fold Equity equation to...
EV = [EV(fold)] * x - [EV(call)] * (1 - x)
In that case x would be -.0359793.
But even then the answer seems erroneous being negative and all that. But i can see the correlation between 3.6%.
Anyone want to clear that up?
Posted 2 months ago
WiltOnTilt
Exec ProducerI guess the mistake I made was thinking that I made a mistake.
Thanks quaddamage.
WoT
Posted 2 months ago
wems
anyone have some input on my math like 2-3 posts up? im uncertain if that is right or not
was arguing with someone on irc they said i needed him to fold like 30% ?!?
im so bad at math... lol
Posted 2 months ago