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Poker Video: No Limit Hold'Em by WiltOnTilt (Micro/Small Stakes)

maybe im confused but...
i downloaded all the videos for this series in regular and ipod versions.
in other series the ipod versions are smaller in file size than their corresponding regular versions (this makes sense.)

In this series all of my ipod versions are BIGGER that the regular versions. I double checked that i didnt mix them up. sure enough the ipod versions are of lower resolution/quality whatever but they're still bigger than the regular versions. did someone encode them wrong or something?

maybe im confused but...
i downloaded all the videos for this series in regular and ipod versions.
in other series the ipod versions are smaller in file size than their corresponding regular versions (this makes sense.)

In this series all of my ipod versions are BIGGER that the regular versions. I double checked that i didnt mix them up. sure enough the ipod versions are of lower resolution/quality whatever but they're still bigger than the regular versions. did someone encode them wrong or something?

might want to email support about this... i dont think others have had this problem but I'm not sure on the tech aspects of this stuff.

Time Link to 01:01:57

I'm way too bad at remembering math calculations WoT.Information exits my head quicker than it enters it.So please believe me WoT when i say this has been the easiest way EVER to make sure it stays in my head & for that i'm eternally grateful!!

according to 1:06

hey, I made this stuff:

1.
x-the unkown size bet
P-pot not including the bet
Eq- equity in % (%chance to win)

x=Eq*P/(1-2Eq)


2.
Same but in ratio data:
x- the unkown size bet we are looking for
P-pot not including the bet
F- (F:1 Under DOG, so if we are 3:1 dog, F=3)

x=P/(F-1)

Seems ok but good if some1 would recheck it if its all right.

great videos WiltOnTilt, really enjoying them
cheers

great series,

really a session that makes you work, but it's worth it.

1.
x-the unkown size bet
P-pot not including the bet
Eq- equity in % (%chance to win)

x=Eq*P/(1-2Eq)

johnyraku, I checked your solution and it is correct.
Here's how i did it:

Eq * (P+x) = (1-Eq) * x => Eq*P + Eq*x = x - Eq*x => Eq*P = x - Eq*x - Eq*x => Eq*P = x * (1-2Eq)
x = Eq*P / (1 - 2Eq)


Great series WoT

Time Link to 00:29:11

Your reasoning to fold here is very thorough, what i don't quite get is why you would even call in the first place given your not likely to flop a better hand with 10 9s than a flush draw. Is it because the villian UTG you described is raising here and some others would just flat SB's lead?

Your reasoning to fold here is very thorough, what i don't quite get is why you would even call in the first place given your not likely to flop a better hand with 10 9s than a flush draw. Is it because the villian UTG you described is raising here and some others would just flat SB's lead?

I wouldn't expect the small blind to lead into the field all that often.

If we thought that UTG wasn't going to play overpairs fast here, I would likely call the flop lead. Given the read of this guy fast playing overpairs, our pot odds are hurt.

I have a question for Wilt, or anyone who can answer me otherwise. When he is doing the EV calc for reverse implied odds when opponent has pocket JJ (at about 15m49sec), he mentions that 9.1% of the time (on turn) we will hit one of our four dity outs and get stacked ( easy to understand). HOWEVER, in the next part of the equation he says that 4.5 % of the time we will hit one of our good outs and win his stack... my question is....

if in an 8 out draw 4 of our outs being bad gives us 9.2 % chance... why would the other 4 good outs not also give us a 9.2 % chance to hit our good outs...

Was this just a mistake or am I seeing things wrong. seems like both ends of the draw should have the same % chance of occurrence.


Thanks!

I have a question for Wilt, or anyone who can answer me otherwise. When he is doing the EV calc for reverse implied odds when opponent has pocket JJ (at about 15m49sec), he mentions that 9.1% of the time (on turn) we will hit one of our four dity outs and get stacked ( easy to understand). HOWEVER, in the next part of the equation he says that 4.5 % of the time we will hit one of our good outs and win his stack... my question is....

if in an 8 out draw 4 of our outs being bad gives us 9.2 % chance... why would the other 4 good outs not also give us a 9.2 % chance to hit our good outs...

Was this just a mistake or am I seeing things wrong. seems like both ends of the draw should have the same % chance of occurrence.


Thanks!

there are only 2 jacks left in the deck yet there are 4 sixes. remember, he has 2 of the jacks in his hand!

I loved this one. Stuck with it like you encouraged me to. I must have watched and rewatched the reverse implied odds part for like an hour trying to figure out how to get the specific %'s and playing with Pokerstove to do the math until it finally started clicking.

It took me some time to figure out how to come up with the JJ = 4.5% until I remembered you saying last video that when you want to come up with the EV for making the hand just on the turn only do it for one street like the turn to the river. So I stoved QQ vs JJ on the same Flop and turn to get the % for hitting a J on the river and voila, 4.5%. (For those who are wondering why I'm so happy to figure this out math is a pretty weak subject for me and Wilt told me to keep at it and not give up so it's kind of exciting that I actually did manage to finally understand what comes fairly easy to a lot of ppl)

If I did it correctly (?) then if you take out QQ-AA and only leave a specific range of 10 10 and JJ for that same hand you would have a -EV of -$100.38. Is that correct?

Aha! yes! Thanks Wilt!

Time Link to 00:37:24

SHOOOOOOOOOVE!! lol

Time Link to 00:15:15

I am a little confused about how you plug the pocket tens ev calc into the calculator. I know if it was 20% I would multiply 1629 (-140 + -765)by .2 right? would I do .18 for 18%? + 140 x.8 correct? Also the final -269 or whatever it is seems really low to me given that 18% of the time you lose over 1k. Please help me to understand this. Thanks for making this video.

I am a little confused about how you plug the pocket tens ev calc into the calculator. I know if it was 20% I would multiply 1629 (-140 + -765)by .2 right? would I do .18 for 18%? + 140 x.8 correct? Also the final -269 or whatever it is seems really low to me given that 18% of the time you lose over 1k. Please help me to understand this. Thanks for making this video.

Got your PM saying you figured it out