I am trying to figure out if this calculation is correct.
Villain is a loose passive player. I think he views my at semi-LAG'ish
HU SnG, 1000$, iPoker
Stacks:
Villain got 1200
I got 1800
I raise pre-flop to 60 with Q
9
Villain calls
Flop: J
Q
4
Pot: 120
Villain checks
I bet 90
Villain calls
Turn: 9
Pot: 300
Villain checks
I bet 250
Villain check-raises all-in for 1050 – 800 more to me
My calculation:
I got 33% in pot odds. I need to be good 1/3 of the time to make a breakeven call.
Number of combinations that beats me:
KT, both suited and offsuited = 16 combinations – I suppouse villain plays all of he's KT like this as he is a loose/passive player.
T8 is also 16 combinations. But I discount ¾ of them because I suppouse he folds a lot of them on the flop. = 4 combinations
QJ is 6 combinations but I suppouse we check-raises almost always on the flop so I just him 1 combination of this
44 is 3 combinations but I will also only give him 1 combination of this because I think he is most likely to check-raise these on the flop
I will give him 0 combinations of QQ. There is only 1 combination left due to the blockers and I think he eiter 3-bets this pre-flop og check-raises of the flop.
I will also give him 0 combinations of JJ because of the same reason
In total that is: 22 combinations that beats me.
Because I need to be good at least 1/3 of the time to make a +EV due to me pot-odds I need to find 22/3 combinations that I beat = 7.3 combinations
I suppouse he always plays J9 like this which is 6 combinations due to the blockers. Occasionally he will also play KQ like this. I will be conservative and just give him 1 combination of this.
He proberly also sometimes got a WTF combination like for example QT.. I will give him just one WTF combination.
Combinations that I beat = 8 combinations.
With these calculations I just a very thin +EV call.
Do you agree with my calculations?
