Obviously it comes down to how much non-A2 is in his range, and how much of it he bets. We're only a 45-55 dog to exactly A2, so there doesn't have to be that much other stuff for us to want to jam.
Against A2,AA,KKWW,QQWW,JJWW, then we're a 2:1 favorite. That seems a bit optimistic. We're a 52-48 favorite against A2,AA, but a bigger dog against A2, AALL and an equally big dog to A2,AALL,AABB. Do we think he's 3betting all AA or just AA with 2 low or 2 bway?
Does he always 3bet even junky A2 pre?
If we do put him on a broader range, is he checking back the part of the range we want to be against? He's probably betting any AA, right? So XR gets us 2 bets against a range where we might be a slight favorite, but 3 bets the occasional times we're in bad shape (A2-set, A2K7, A24). BC gets us 1 bet when we're a favorite and 2 when we're a slight dog. Am i thinking about this the right way?
I think I x/r the turn. You pull ahead of all the overpair hands right? Dunno about the equity if he's got a low right now, but maybe you scoop with an A or 2 river?
A river ace doesn't help us against A2; it gives us a live 4 (7543A) vs a live 2 (7532A).