jk3a
898 posts
Joined 01/2008
Because so much of his range is a weak overpair (or 88/99), what do you guys think of checking back any potential flush draws? I think if we bet this turn we have to fire through on the river and villain might make a few tough calls with something like 99 or JJ since there aren't all too many T-x/77 combos in our range and there a lot of semi-bluffs we could do this with.
We're unlikely to get a street of value with a FD when we bet the turn and then hit the river but we're very likely to solicit a call by checking back something like QJss on the turn and then betting a spade river because he would expect us to bet our semi-bluffs on the turn.
if he has 88-QQ betting the turn without intention of bluffing rivers is likely a thin bet, but can never be too bad with all our equity. that said, the best line is likely just bet every street
Posted almost 3 years ago
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Googolplexx
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Steppin Razor
Section 9
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Joined 12/2009
wtf with this comment, just because you make a video for a pokersite dont mean that you hold the truth and people disagreeing are wrong.
Sure I have a lot of work to do, still I could teach both of you quite a few things about midstakes 6-max and how it plays.
I hope it doesnt turn into a dick contest.
Man I love poker.
Posted almost 3 years ago
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AlexTG
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WiltOnTilt
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zenben
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ndahlhoff10
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PsYchOT|K
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galacticrewind
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Time Link to 00:11:31
In the first hand, I do not understand why it is such an easy call. This is a loose player who is not good, with a VPIP of 45 to 55, so maybe that makes the difference, but you did not say that he was aggressive so if he is loose and passive then it seems like he would not bet the turn with just one spade.
He did not raise the flop, but instead waited to bet the turn, and then bet only 250 into a 425 pot, so maybe that is it. Did you know he did not have the flush because he is unlikely to slowplay it on the flop? If he had raised the flop, or bet bigger on the turn, then would you have given him more credit? And if you knew you were ahead on the turn before he made the small bet, then did you check the turn to induce his bet?
Your read ended up being spot on, but I just don't understand how you did it.
Posted over 2 years ago
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WiltOnTilt
2402 posts
Joined 10/2007
In the first hand, I do not understand why it is such an easy call. This is a loose player who is not good, with a VPIP of 45 to 55, so maybe that makes the difference, but you did not say that he was aggressive so if he is loose and passive then it seems like he would not bet the turn with just one spade.
He did not raise the flop, but instead waited to bet the turn, and then bet only 250 into a 425 pot, so maybe that is it. Did you know he did not have the flush because he is unlikely to slowplay it on the flop? If he had raised the flop, or bet bigger on the turn, then would you have given him more credit? And if you knew you were ahead on the turn before he made the small bet, then did you check the turn to induce his bet?
Your read ended up being spot on, but I just don't understand how you did it.
A few things to consider on this hand. Given how wide his range is pre and on the flop and how unlikely he is to be a good value bettor, we can narrow his turn and river range down to mostly flushes and air and maybe occasionally some sets (the important thing is, never 1 pair). Given how wide his range is and how hard it is to make those hands and how much pure air he will have on this turn and river (remember, he is peeling any single spade for sure), it makes it a call.
If he peels the flop with random like JsTo or similar, he is definitely betting this turn. I think even guys I would consider overall passive, would bet complete air J high or 9 high or whatever here. Given all those combinations of offsuit single spade hands he can have to never fold the flop and likely bet a "scare card" (not really a scare card considering he probably doesn't value bet any 1 pair on this turn and he has tons of combinations of hands that could bluff, and when I cbet and check here, most of my range looks like air...and you dont have to be an expert player to know that.)
ALso keep in mind that even though he will raise his sets and flushes some of the time on the flop, he will slowplay some of them too. The point is any time we can discount some hands, we must keep that in mind.
So we have a situation where on the river he is in a virtual "nuts" or nothing spot, and we can discount some of the "nut" hands after the flop call, the turn bet size , and given how much air he can have from peeling the flop, on the river it makes it a call.
Keep in mind, he doesnt have to be bluffing 100% of the time with his air range for it to be a call and many people will view both the turn and river as scare cards since its so hard for me to have either of them when i check/call the turn. We only have to be good 33% of the time to make it a call and i think we're good here more like 65-70%
Lemme know if you have follow up questions.
Hope that made sense
WoT
Posted over 2 years ago
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LAGityTAGity
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Joined 07/2009
On the last hand of the video where jk3a rivers the flush you mentioned that jk3a only bets here with a flush or air. If villain has a pair here he might call if he thinks jk3a has enough air in his range.
This made me think of a play for villain in this spot. If villain would play TT or 77 the same way, checking the river flush card hoping you will bet your air and flushes planning on check-raising the river, would jk3a then fold to a river check raise?
If jk3a would fold to a check raise on the river then what about villain turning his one pair hand into a bluff on the river by check raising? By the river he's not missing much value by checking a monster unless his opponent is a complete vag and checks back the nut flush. So then can villain represent a monster by check raising the river?
Posted over 1 year ago
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jk3a
898 posts
Joined 01/2008