Poker Video: No Limit Hold'Em by sthief09 (Micro/Small Stakes)

What you're seeing is basically me accounting for what you're saying. There are 9 river spades. For example, KsJs is impossible when the river is a Ks or a Js. So on 7/9 of river cards, it is possible. 7/9 = .777 and that's why it says 0.8. That should account for me grouping together all 9 spades.

So yeah, for the sake of my sanity I grouped the river by types, but I did account for this by altering the # of combinations. I can post the excel sheet if you'd like, but it's a bit of a mess right now.

Thanks for the reply! You don't need to post the sheet just yet, I am enjoying the recreation learning experience right now

So the "unnamed column" is effective hand combinations on a river spade?
Isn't it impossible for Villain to have, for example, 5.7 combinations of JJ when we have weighted it down several times on flop and on turn?

Shouldn't it be something like:
Effective combos after the flop * Percentage of times he c/c turn * the factor that accounts for a river Js
Or
3 * 93% * 8/9 = 2.48 combos of JJ on a spade river

Time Link to 00:45:24

Hi!

One probably very stupid question:

For instance, when you calculate the EV of turnplay of flopplay, you count always the deadmoney (potsize) in to the calculation, when the result is positiv.

For example: EV(Bet Turn, Villain folds)= Potsize * P(Villain folds)

or EV (Bet Flop, Villain calls) = (Flop_Potsize + Villain`s Call[so our betsize]) * EQ * P(Vilalin calls)


Regards to the calculation of the RiverEV it seems not to be the case - why not?

Maybe b/c nobody has more PotEQ, in terms of outs?

Not quite sure if I understand your question but yes, once the river is dealt we are either bluffing or valuebetting and it all comes down to the % he calls as to the EV of either.

Not quite sure if I understand your question but yes, once the river is dealt we are either bluffing or valuebetting and it all comes down to the % he calls as to the EV of either.

All right, I think you got my question right and now it is also logical for me (IDK, why it was not during watching the vid^^)

Thx for answering

catching up on some vids, and i have a question that i feel stupid for asking from 8 minutes in.

the example is 5/10 blinds, 1000 stacks; hero raises to 30, sb 3-bets to 110, we 4-bet to 235 and call a shove for 765 more. then to work out the ev it says "calling 765 to win 1245". how do you get this 1245? i've played around with the numbers involved and can't figure it out. sorry to bump this from one month ago for something trivial but i wanna make sure i understand it fully.

catching up on some vids, and i have a question that i feel stupid for asking from 8 minutes in.

the example is 5/10 blinds, 1000 stacks; hero raises to 30, sb 3-bets to 110, we 4-bet to 235 and call a shove for 765 more. then to work out the ev it says "calling 765 to win 1245". how do you get this 1245? i've played around with the numbers involved and can't figure it out. sorry to bump this from one month ago for something trivial but i wanna make sure i understand it fully.

don't hesitate to bump older threads. people do it all the time. we like to be interactive anyway, so it's good to ask questions.

so you 4-bet to 235. you have 765 left in your stack. the 235 has now become dead money. since we're looking at the odds of calling a 5-bet, the 235 is a sunk cost and it's now part of the pot odds being offered. so if we call and win, we win that 235, plus our opponent's entire 1000 stack (some of which had entered the pot already when he 3-bet), plus the 10 big blind that folded. 1000+235+10 is 1245.

got it, much appreciated. this vid was a real eye-opener.