akvsaq
102 posts
Joined 02/2007
Villain in loose-aggressive preflop but fit or foldy postflop.
I open first in from BTN w/ 87, SB 3B, I call.
Flop comes JJ4, SB bets, I call.
Turn comes 2. SB bets, I raise.
Vs this opponent, is this too spewy? I would be more likely to make this move if it was JJ42r
instead of the turn card bringing a 2 flush so maybe in his mind on a 2 flush, he may think im
semi-bluff raising.
How often do you make moves like this?
Posted about 5 years ago
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DeathDonkey
5387 posts
Joined 11/2006
danzasmack
2064 posts
Joined 02/2007
Oink
787 posts
Joined 06/2007
danzasmack
2064 posts
Joined 02/2007
akvsaq
102 posts
Joined 02/2007
@danzasmack
I probably wouldn't make this kind of move vs you and I almost never make this bluff raise move.
Nobody seems to like it but I thought this was a rare exception b/c I know him well enough that he folds
very easily. But getting a unanimous disagreement from 3 experts here I will now behave.
Would you guys at least peel the flop?
Posted about 5 years ago
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danzasmack
2064 posts
Joined 02/2007
Hey, if you have a read, then do it.
On the flop you are getting 8-1 so I usually peel 1 time, especially when you consider metagame ya hurd.
Now, on the turn he bets and you are getting 5.5 to 1 on a call. A raise must work about 2 in 5.5 here. Do you think he folds THAT often? That's a lot.
If he does then your flop peel is 10000% correct and folding any 2 cards would be a mistake.
Posted about 5 years ago
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